What is John 5 for

What is John 5 for

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John 5:4 in the New International Version has been revised to: From time to time an angel of the Lord would come down and stir up the waters. The first one into the pool after each such disturbance would be cured of whatever disease he had.

Why did John 5 leave Marilyn Manson?

http://mansoneurope.com/faq/side_3.htm

Artistic differences made John 5 leave the band. He was working with other artists like Avril Lavigne besides Marilyn Manson, and well, Mr. Manson didn’t like that fact.

What does John 5:

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Jesus IS NOT God and he NEVER has been God. Those spewing out “he was 100% God and 100%” man are as blind as can be. According to “Reasoning from the Scriptures”: It was the unbelieving Jews who reasoned that Jesus was a…

Related Questions Answered on Y!Answers

What is the meaning of these obscure verses – St. John’s Gospel, chapter 5 verses 2-4?

Q: John 52 Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches. 3 In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water. 4 For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.

A: First, it was a token of God’s good will to that people, and an indication that, though they had been long without prophets and miracles, yet God had not cast them off; though they were now an oppressed despised people, and many were ready to say, Where are all the wonders that our fathers told us of? God did hereby let them know that he had still a kindness for the city of their solemnities. We may hence take occasion to acknowledge with thankfulness God’s power and goodness in the mineral waters, that contribute so much to the health of mankind; for God made the fountains of water, <Rev. 14:7>. Secondly, It was a type of the Messiah, who is the fountain opened; and was intended to raise people’s expectations of him who is the Sun of righteousness, that arises with healing under his wings. These waters had formerly been used for purifying, now for healing, to signify both the cleansing and curing virtue of the blood of Christ, that incomparable bath, which heals all our diseases. The waters of Siloam, which filled this pool, signified the kingdom of David, and of Christ the Son of David <Isa. 8:6>; fitly therefore have they now this sovereign virtue put into them. The laver of regeneration is to us as Bethesda’s pool, healing our spiritual diseases; not at certain seasons, but at all times. Whoever will, let him come.(from Matthew Henry’s Commentary)

If 1 John 5:7 is supposedly teaching three persons in a trinity, why is “Word” used instead of “Son” ?

Q: “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” – 1 John 5:7And if Jesus is a “second person”, what does Revelation 1:8 mean? “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”

A: “There are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are ONE.” {I John 5:7}The Word or Logos can mean the plan or thought as it existed in the mind of God. This thought was a predestined plan – an absolutely certain future event – and therefore it had a reality attached to it that no human thought could ever have. The Word can also mean the plan or thought of God as expressed in the flesh, that is in the Son. What is the difference, therefore, between the two terms, Word and Son? The Word had pre-existence and the Word was God (the Father), so we can use it without reference to humanity. However, the Son always refers to the Incarnation and we cannot use it in the absence of the human element. Except as a foreordained plan in the mind of God, the Son did not have pre-existence before the conception in the womb of Mary. The Son of God pre-existed in thought but not in substance. The Bible calls this foreordained plan the Word (John 1:1, 14).God the Father so loved the world that He robed Himself in flesh and gave of Himself as the Son of God to reconcile the world to Himself (II Corinthians 5:19). The one Jehovah God of the Old Testament, the great Creator of the universe, humbled Himself in the form of man so that man could see Him, understand Him, and communicate with Him. He made a body for Himself, called the Son of God.In Christs Love,JoanOneness Pentecostal

What does 1 John 5:2-3 mean for Christians?

Q: 1 John 5:2-3 ESV By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God and obey his commandments. (3) For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments. And his commandments are not burdensome.

A: Depends on which christians answers this. The main stream christian the religion of the world, it means keep 9 commandments and do away with the rest.To His saints it means; Mat 4:4 Man shall live by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.